What is the bayesian counterpart to the chi-square test?

[torkar]

Hi,

it looks like you would need a categorical/multinomial model, which you then use to draw samples from the posterior to examine what differences there are between the categories?

Please see here for more information:

Multilevel, Categorical/Multinomial Model- Terms and priors

For statisticians, the categorical distribution is a special case of the multinomial distribution with one observation that has that simplex of probabilities. Lots of non-statisticians use the phrase categorical distribution to mean a multinomial distribution You mean categorical to mean categorical.

Interpreting results from categorical() with brm

Are you sure you only have three categories? Because, in brms, categorial() models are implemented using the first category as reference category, seeing mu1, mu2, mu3 indicates that you actually have four categories.

Reproduce posterior_predict from posterior_linpred for a neg binom spline model

Hi Angelo, here’s a brief explanation of the difference. Suppose you have a negative binomial regression with a log link: \eta_i = a + bx_i \\ \lambda_i = \exp(\eta_i) \\ y_i \sim {\rm NegBinom}(\lambda_i, \phi) posterior_linpred() gives you posterior draws of \eta. posterior_linpred(transform=TRUE), or equivalently posterior_epred(), gives you posterior draws of \lambda, that is, it does the inverse link transformation for you. posterior_predict() gives you draws from {\rm NegBinom}(\l…