I have few basic questions:

We get the parameters of the intercept from the posterior distribution? The single value that is indicated as the intercept is how exactly related to this posterior distribution…or how do we come to that.

Is the posterior distribution different for each variable for a ‘model a’? for does the whole model has a single posterior distribution for all of its parameters?

I was trying to explain Bayesian to my roommate and actually understood I don’t really know these basics…